A 32-year-old female has recently had surgery for melanoma of the right lower leg, Clark level IV. She had no other signs of metastasis or adenopathy. Under general anesthesia, a sentinel node biopsy of the deep axillary nodes was performed with a gamma counter probe. An injection of isosulfan blue dye was performed and the nodes followed carefully to the single bright-blue node. This node was excised and sent for frozen section, which proved to be negative for melanoma. Before the procedure, the radiologist performed a lymphoscintigraphy. Which of the following code sets would the surgeon report? (Do not report supplies.)
[Answered]: A 32-year-old female has recently had surgery for…
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